Yep that's my understanding too. V cannot have inverse since it is not
square (in common case).
But since it is orthonormal, transpose produces a pseudoinverse which
we can use just the same.
On Mon, Sep 10, 2012 at 2:03 PM, Sean Owen <srowen@gmail.com> wrote:
> Yes, doesn't the V V' != I bit mean it's not an inverse? I thought
> only square matrices had a real inverse. This is a onesided inverse,
> which is (IIRC?) slightly stronger than being a pseudoinverse.
>
> On Mon, Sep 10, 2012 at 9:59 PM, Ted Dunning <ted.dunning@gmail.com> wrote:
>> No. It is the inverse. V' V = I
>>
>> On the other hand, V V' != I. We do know that norm(A V V'  A) is small.
