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From Dyre.Tjeldv...@Sun.COM
Subject Re: Question about grant/revoke
Date Tue, 24 Apr 2007 08:35:21 GMT
Mamta Satoor <msatoor@gmail.com> writes:

> Dyre, before I can understand the entire email, I need understanding this
> part of your mail
> "Assume I have a table T and a view V that references it, and that I
> currently have select privilege on T." Who owns the table T when you say I
> have a table T? Also, let me take the case where you are not the owner of
> table T and you have been granted select privilege on T, then you don't
> automatically get select privilege on view V. In that case, this statement
> doesn't sound right "I currently have select privilege on T. Assume that I
> have created a prepared statement P that selects from V." If you have select
> privileges on T only, then you should not be able to preapre a statement
> which selects from V. So, it will be good to know the exact ownership of the
> objects and the exact privileges granted to the user who is trying to
> prepare a statement.

Thanks for precious time from your collation work to answer my
question :) 
(If anyone else knows the answer to these questions it
would probably be good if they could help Mamta out :)

OK, I think I have confused things a bit. Forget the view (don't think
it is relevant), and assume that P references T directly. Assume that
some other user X created T and has granted me select privilege on T. 
I prepare P without problems and execute it. Then user X revokes my select
privilege on T. I then try to execute P again.

My understanding (based on Dan's comments earlier in this thread and
in DERBY-827) is that P then should already have been marked as
invalid by the revoke and that my attempt to execute P should trigger
a re-compile, which in turn should fail because I no longer have
select privilege on T.

(This isn't what happens today btw. Currently P will not be invalid,
but it checks that it has the necessary permissions on every execute,
so the second execute of P will still fail)


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