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From "Dino Chiesa" <>
Subject RE: BeanMapping and Subclasses
Date Mon, 18 Apr 2005 14:13:05 GMT
I don't get it

You have B extending A. 
If you had 

public B getB() ; 

Then I would expect you to get B and A in the WSDL. 

But if you have

public A getA()  ;

There is no reference of B, and no need for B in the public interface.
It is B that extends A.   Not A extends B.  A does not depend on B.  If
the public interface references only A, nobody needs to care about B.

And if you have 

public A[] getA2() ; 

Then again, you do not require any definition of B in the WSDL.  Or have
I read it wrong? 


-----Original Message-----
From: Nigel Jewell [] 
Sent: Monday, April 18, 2005 8:42 AM
Subject: BeanMapping and Subclasses

Hi all,

I have a question regarding beanmapping, subclasses and arrays.

If I have:

    class A
    class B extends A
    beanmapping for A and B

The method:

    public A getA();

creates definitions for A and B in the WSDL - as required.

If I have a method:

    public A[] getA();

only definitions for A are created in the WSDL.

Am I missing something?



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