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From "Sanjiv Jivan" <sanjiv.ji...@gmail.com>
Subject Re: detaching message group affinity
Date Mon, 19 Jun 2006 16:04:34 GMT
On 6/19/06, James Strachan <james.strachan@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>
> > Who is the owner of the "JMSXGroupID" to broker mapping? Is it the JMS
> > Connection or a JMSSession? I need to send messages by different Message
> > Groups from the same client application. I would like to understand if I
> > need to create separate JMS Connections for each message group based
> > conversation, or separate JMS Sessions would suffice. A quick look at
> the
> > source seems to indicate that Message Groups are held at the JMS
> connection
> > level (ActiveMQConnectionMetaData). Can you confirm?
>
> A broker manages Message Groups for its consumers. Its nothing to do
> with connections per se - its purely a mapping of JMSXGroupID to
> message consumer in a broker.


A consumer being the value in JMSReplyTo? I guess what I'm having difficulty
understanding is where is the correlation between a single message with "
message.setIntProperty("JMSXGroupSeq", 0);" to MessageGroupID being made. Is
it based on JMSReplyTo value provided by the producer sending the message?

What is the expected behaviour in such a scenario (this is related to issue
AMQ-760): A network of 2 brokers has been set up. A client sends several
messages to MG1 and MG2 which are received by SERVER1 and SERVER2
respectively. The client process terminates (ie the JMSConenction,
session etc are destroyed). The client comes up an send messages to MG1 and
MG2. Is is guaranteed that MG1 and MG2 go to the designated servers from the
previous run (SERVER1 and SERVER2 respectively).

Thanks,
Sanjiv
Thanks,
Sanjiv

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